Choose DEA-1TT4 Real Study Guide For Associate -Information Storage and Management Version 4 Exam

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Come to choose DEA-1TT4 real study guide for Associate -Information Storage and Management Version 4 certification exam now. Actual DEA-1TT4 exam focuses on information storage and management in a data center. To help you test the related skills and knowledge points, we have collected DELL EMC DEA-1TT4 real study guide with 116 practice exam questions which are shown in the pdf file and free software. Additinally, all the answers of the DEA-1TT4 study guide have been verified by the top experts. We ensure that you can pass DEA-1TT4 Associate -Information Storage and Management Version 4 Exam in the first attempt.

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Page 1 of 4

1. What is an accurate statement about Governance?

Restrict access to certain users

Ensure removal of security risks

Authorize policy-making decisions

Demonstrate adherence to polices

2. Which exhibit represents a Type 1 hypervisor?

A)

Option A

Option B

Option C

Option D

3. An Ethernet switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational for 24 hours, from Monday through Friday.

However, a failure of Port4 occurs as follows:

• Monday = 8 PM to 9 PM

• Wednesday 7 PM to 9 PM

• Thursday = 6 AM to 9 AM

• Saturday = 4 PM to 7 PM

What is the MTTR of Port 4?

2 hours

3 hours

28 hours

38 hours

4. What accurately describes an iSCSI HBA?

Performs both iSCSI and TCP/IP processing

Requires CPU cycles for TCP/IP processing

Requires a software adapter with built-in functionality

Enables transmission of data through iSCSI tunneling

5. When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments.

What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the configuration?

6. What is a key advantage of cloning a virtual machine (VM)?

Ability to run new VMs simultaneously with the same IP address.

Reduces the time required to create multiple copies of a V

Improves the performance of an existing VM and new VMs.

Eliminates the need to create multiple snapshots for a V

7. A company is using an intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS) to scan and analyze intrusion events.

Which IDPS technique uses a database that contains known attack patterns?

Role-based

Profile-based

Signature-based

Anomaly-based

8. DRAG DROP

In a backup operation, what are the correct sequence of steps after the backup server initiates the scheduled backup process?

9. In an archiving environment, how is a content address created in a content addressable storage (CAS) system to store an object?

From the metadata of an object.

By using the logical address of the memory space.

From the binary representation of an object.

By using the physical address of the storage device.

10. What is a benefit of link aggregation?

Optimizes fabric performance by distributing network traffic across ISLs.

Improves ISL utilization by increasing the network traffic on a specific IS

Yields a higher throughput by combining two parallel ISLs into a single physical IS

Saves bandwidth by restricting traffic to a specific potentially congested IS

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11. In a compute-based storage area network (SAN), what is a function of the metadata manager?

Holds cluster-wide mapping information and load balancing in a compute-based SA

Performs the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client.

Provides an interface to the software-defined storage controller.

Controls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SA

12. Why is it important for organizations to store, protect, and manage their data?

Reduce the amount of data to be replicated, migrated, and backed up.

Rapidly develop and deploy modern applications for business improvement.

Develop new business opportunities by leveraging existing data.

Reduce the complexity in managing the data center environment.

13. A Fibre Channel switch has eight ports and all ports must be operational 24×7.

However, a failure of Port 5 occurs on a particular week as follows:

• Monday = 11 AM to 12 PM

• Thursday = 7 AM to 11 AM

• Saturday = 11 AM to 1 PM

What is the availability of Port 5 in that week?

93%

94.1%

95.8%

97%

14. Which layer of the OSI model provides the functional and procedural methods to transfer data between network entities?

Data link

Presentation

Session

Application

15. What is an accurate statement about variable prefetching?

Many blocks that have recently been written to storage by the compute system are retrieved and placed in cache.

Many non-contiguous blocks that are not currently required can be retrieved from cache in advance.

Storage system prefetches data in multiples of the original I/O request size from the compute system.

Storage system prefetches many non-contiguous blocks of data, with varied sizes, from cache.

16. DRAG DROP

Match the Fibre Channel (FC) Layers with their respective functions.

17. Which Dell EMC product is a hyper-scale storage infrastructure that provides universal accessibility with support for object and HDFS?

ViPR Controller

PowerMax

Isilon

Elastic Cloud Storage

18. Which cloud deployment model allows provisioning of a cloud infrastructure only for use by a single organization having multiple consumers?

Public cloud

Multi-cloud

Hybrid cloud

Private cloud

19. A company plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 2 TB of storage space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 4500 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 4 KB. The capacity of each available disk drive is 250 GB. In addition, the maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70% utilization is 90 IOPS.

What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application's capacity and performance requirements for a RAID 0 configuration?

20. Which technology decouples the OS, applications, and user state from a physical compute system?

Application virtualization

Storage virtualization

Thin client virtualization

Desktop virtualization

Page 3 of 4

21. What is the goal of a business continuity solution?

Reduce the amount of investment in protecting an organization's business-related data.

Avoid a disaster in a data protection environment to control the loss of data.

Ensure information availability that is required to conduct vital business operations.

Eliminate security threats in a data protection environment for continuous access to data.

22. What is a function of the metadata service in an object-based storage device (OSD)?

Generates the file system namespace from the file contents.

Manages both physical and logical disks on which the user data is stored.

Manages the storage space for all remote clients.

Maintains the object IDs and file system namespace mappings.

23. DRAG DROP

Match the types of attack with their respective description.

24. What accurately describes virtual SAN (VSAN) trunking?

Reduces the utilization of ISLs by removing all the ISLs configured between the FC switches.

Increases the number of E_ports used for the ISLs to transfer multiple VSAN traffic.

Increases the complexity of managing the FC SAN with an increase in the number of ISLs.

Reduces the number of ISLs between switches that are configured with multiple VSANs.

25. What does an area ID represent in Fibre Channel (FC) addressing?

Group of switch ports

Switch within a group

Port within a group

Group of switches

26. Based on the exhibit,

What does the "X", "Y", and "Z" represent in a NAS environment?

X = FC SAN, Y = IP Network, and Z = NAS Gateway

X = IP Network, Y = FC SAN, and Z = NAS Gateway

X = FC SAN, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z= IP Network

X = IP Network, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z = FC SAN

27. Which type of zoning does the "X" represent?

Fabric zoning

WWN zoning

Mixed zoning

Port zoning

28. Which functionality does a Control layer provide in a software-defined networking architecture?

Defining the network behavior through various policies.

Making decisions on how the packets should be forwarded.

Establishing communications between the Infrastructure and Interface layers.

Forwarding data packets based on the requirements from the Application layer.

29. What accurately describes an Incident in a storage infrastructure?

Unknown root cause of one or more disruptions to service.

Any event that may lead to the disruption of a service.

Support request to help access an IT resource.

Any event that may create a change in correcting a known error.

30. What accurately describes the scale-out storage architecture?

Scales the capacity only within a single storage system.

Provides a fixed capacity ceiling that limits scalability beyond a storage system.

Provides the capability to maximize its capacity by adding nodes to the cluster.

Restricts scalability to the limits of the storage controllers.

Page 4 of 4

31. Which technology combines NAND flash memory into a hard disk drive and is a single, integrated device incorporating both types of storage?

Solid-state drive

Dual drive

Fibre Channel drive

Solid-state hybrid drive

32. Which Dell EMC product creates a server and IP-based SAN from direct-attached server storage to deliver flexible and scalable performance and capacity on demand?

PowerMax

VxFlex OS

ViPR Controller

XtremIO

33. Which Internet of Things (IoT) component is responsible for the automation of operations by applying a force based on the dynamics of data?

Actuator

Switch

Sensor

Gateway

34. In an FCoE switch, which function is provided by the Fibre Channel Forwarder (FCF)?

Communication bridge between CEE and IP networks

Communication bridge between FC and FCIP networks

Communication bridge between CEE and FCIP networks

Communication bridge between CEE and FC networks

35. Which technology is used in the media and entertainment industry to enable content-based search activity and to create video subtitles using natural language processing?

Machine learning

Social networking

Cloud computing

Internet of Things

36. Why are organizations moving towards a modern data center implementation?

Develop modern applications in the public cloud without having the right skill set in-house.

Ability to be agile, operate in real time, and develop intelligent products.

Deploy only unified and converged IT resources to reduce the management complexity.

Reduce the cost of managing data center components by using a self-service catalog.

37. What is a key objective to performing continuous replication?

Avoid performing data archiving.

Reduce the RPO to near-zero.

Reduce the deduplication ratio.

Avoid performing data backups.

38. What accurately describes a shared pool in virtual provisioning?

Should contain only homogeneous disk drive types.

Supports a single RAID protection level.

Consists of only a virtual storage volume.

Should contain only physical drives with different sizes.

39. Which data archiving component scans primary storage to find the files that meet the archiving policy?

Archive storage

Archive database server

Archive agent

Archive stub file

40. In the event of a disk failure, which RAID level enables quick data reconstruction?

RAID 3

RAID 5

RAID 6

RAID 10